So, when buying property tax foreclosures on the Courthouse steps what happens to funds paid that are in excess of the amount owed to foreclosing entity (i.e the city)? I think they go back to the owner of the property. But, if there is a note on the property then does the lender get those funds?
I am confused about this because I know the tax deed voids all Deed's of Trust. So, the lender is compelled to bid against the public on the property if they want to preserve the collateral of their promissory note. But, I can't believe that the system would deliver excess funds to the defunct owner of the property and allow them to not pay the lender's note.
I am a rookie obviously.
Can someone clarify this for me? Thanks